John McPhaill
June 7 at 10:37am
And here is had, for me, a perplexity (which moves in one of my questions):
If it is that sin in its concentrated definition "is the transgression of the law" (I John 3:4), how then can Paul so say "sin is not imputed when there is no law" (Romans 5:13)? For surely the law imputes, and doubtlessly sin is transgression of the law, but if this is so then how can there be one without the other as the apostle implies--sin before Moses (e.g., Genesis 4:7), but no law before him.
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Question about the Law and Sin
John McPhaill
June 7 at 10:37am
And here is had, for me, a perplexity (which moves in one of my questions):
If it is that sin in its concentrated definition "is the transgression of the law" (I John 3:4), how then can Paul so say "sin is not imputed when there is no law" (Romans 5:13)? For surely the law imputes, and doubtlessly sin is transgression of the law, but if this is so then how can there be one without the other as the apostle implies--sin before Moses (e.g., Genesis 4:7), but no law before him.
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In Matthew 27:53 it says some saints were raised from the dead after Jesus’ resurrection. Did these saints receive glorified bodies and ascend to heaven or did they just die again like Lazarus?
Also did Enoch and Elijah receive glorified bodies? They were taken to heaven without dying (Genesis 5:24, 2 Kings 2:11) but I imagine that if they remained in their sinful bodies that their sin nature would still wage war against the Spirit while in heaven.... So did God either 1.) Remove them from their sinful bodies and make them go around as ‘souls’ 