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Help with a Q on Mosaic Law

May 6th, 2015

May 5, 2015

Here’s a question I received yesterday. I assume the questioner is asking about whether we are still under the Jewish legal system and dietary laws and why is there a trinity? Any ideas on this one?
What explanation would you give then to what Jesus said in Mathew 5:17-20? This is directly from God Himself. And also what explanation will you give on the writings of the prophets, there prophecies about the house of Juda and the house of Israel without the hebraic root understa

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  • Timothy Craig Munger The key words are in the opening of the question, “the Jewish legal system.” God never intended that for the non-Jew. The laws, commands, and directives made a unique, distinct people: the Jewish people. The same with the Sabbath, it was given to the Jewish people. The day of the week is flexible today according to Romans 14 since God is dealing with the world and building His Church, as Paul clearly states, “let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind.”Concerning Matthew 5:17-20, I believe it refers to the the revelation in the Old Testament concerning the Messiah. Those would be fulfilled to the least “jot and tittle.” Concerning the godhead, Deuteronomy 6:4 enforces, not negates, a triunity, as three times God is mentioned, twice the name Adonai, or Lord, and Elohim, God, also can be translated ‘gods.’ When it refers to the living God, it is translated singularly, God. The im ending makes it a plural word, and the word ‘one’ is a uni-plural noun. It Is also translated ‘one’ in Genesis 2:24 when Moses refers to the relationship between man and a woman who shall be one-ehad- flesh. We understand the Word of God, not by understanding our “Hebraic roots” solely, but by the guidance and enlightening of the Holy Spirit (John 16:7-11; 1 John 2:24-27).
  • Joe Maxey Thanks Timothy- I think your on the right track!
  • Sarah Van Baale Does God have different rules for different people based upon ethnicity?
  • Dale Agner Ok, food for thought on the first part of the question..we confuse the idea that all aspects of the law were meant for healing the heart…and confuse the Mosaic law as no longer being useful or pertinent now that Jesus has come. Not all aspects of Mosaic law were meant to address what we colloquially refer to as spiritual issues…though the Jews did. All of the Jewish laws that pertain to society (such as judicial law) and health are useful for a society…but none heal the heart…that is Jesus. The early and medieval churches thought it was more holy not to bathe than to bathe…a misapplication of Jesus instruction to the Jews regarding the accusation of eating grain and not properly washing their hands in keeping with tradition. Semmelweis, a 19th century european physician (obstetrician) prior to germ theory, began the Jewish custom of washing hands between patients and surgery (Often very bloody hands and medical work in unsanitary condition). His patients started to survive more than others….and he suggested to others that they should wash hands between obstetrical deliveries and surgery (no gloves at this time either)…and he was soundly ridiculed and broke him…yet God’s principles are useful for living…whether “saved or not”. But again…only Jesus heals the heart, not the Mosaic law.

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