Team GotQuestions Blog

a Blog for Sharing Stories, Tips & Encouragement

Help with a Q&A on rape

April 25th, 2015

Cory Carwile
April 24, 2015

OK GotQuestions family, I have a bit of a tricky one. I’ve been mulling it over last night and this morning, and I think I have a broad idea of where I want to go with the answer, but because of all the emotions and social issues tied up in the matter, I was wondering if any of you had run into a question like this:

“Is there a difference between the kind of violent rape we see today and the ‘rape’ of the Old Testament? Particularly the rape of Dinah in Genesis 34. Hamor claims to love Dinah, and he speaks tenderly to her (even though he supposedly ‘raped’ her). There seems to be a gradation of ‘rape’ from merely a passionate encounter by an over-controlling male to the extremes of violent torture that we hear today. I’m hoping the answer to this question might help clear up the OT laws on rape. Specifically Deut 22:28-29 and its distinction with 22:22-27. 28-29 mentions if ‘they’ are found, not if HE is caught. Sometimes it seems like the Bible is punishing based on the ownership of the woman by a husband or father (with harsher punishment if owned by husband). I don’t think that’s what going on, but I’d like some clarification nonetheless. I know God had the women in mind with these laws also. But I don’t understand the cultural or linguistic context properly enough to understand how these laws best protected them. Thanks.”

I’m thinking I should emphasize that many of the stories in the Bible are descriptive, not necessarily prescriptive (like in the case of Dinah and Hamor). But the passages in the Law are bit more troublesome; they’re prescriptive pretty much by definition, even if not all believers are required to follow the Law through every age. Anybody have any thoughts?

  • Wendyl Leslie Though I’m not a woman, I would, however, imagine that for a woman being raped there are no “gradations” or degrees of rape. She’s being violated regardless . . . and it’s still a sin, and a violent one either way.
    Yesterday at 10:18am · Like · 4
  • Cory Carwile Right, Wendyl; there is no “light rape” or “sorta rape.” And I guess that solves the superficial question being asked here: no, rape was still rape in the Old Testament, and equally immoral as it is today. But that doesn’t really get to what I think is the heart of questioner’s problem: what do we do with those passages where there are instances of what we would consider rape (which are even translated as rape in translations like the NIV), and yet the punishment for the crime seems rather lax or nearly non-existent (I’m thinking specifically of Deut. 22:28-29 here). In the Deut. 22 case, there’s a punishment prescribed, but it seems minor, as well as harsh on the woman (who has to marry her rapist, without an option for divorce). Would this just be an instance of an allowance for a different culture, like how divorce for any reason was permitted in the Law because Israel’s hardness of heart, but condemned by Christ in the New Testament? This is where I get hung up formulating my answer.
    Yesterday at 10:35am · Like · 3
  • Gwen Sellers This is a tricky question! You might find these articles helpful:
    Yesterday at 11:20am · Like · 2
  • Gwen Sellers http://www.gotquestions.org/Bible-rape.html

    What does the Bible say about rape?
    What does the Bible say about rape? Where does the Bible condemn rape? Is it true that the Bible allows rape…
    GOTQUESTIONS.ORG
    Yesterday at 11:23am · Like · 1 · Remove Preview
  • Gwen Sellers I didn’t want to just give those articles to the questioner as the topic is delicate and her question seemed more nuanced, deserving of a personal response. But you might be able to find some helpful concepts (or even excerpts) in them. You might also look at the articles on whether God is sexist and also on slavery. Not quite the same, but there are some similar ideas. Even the polygamy article might give some insight about marrying a rapist (in terms of it potentially being a provision for the woman’s welfare). Thank you so much for taking this one on, Cory!
    Yesterday at 11:24am · Like · 4
  • Dale Agner These are great discussions and issues. I’ll provide a possible additional perspective. The person writing the question is appropriately concerned about justice. There are two sides to the coin of justice. One side is the victim, and the other side of the coin is a way to limit a person (and more often a family), from taking “out of bounds retribution or revenge”. The lines and perceptions of restitution, retribution, revenge and “justice” often get blurred in a flurry or eruption of emotions, as is demonstrated by the rape of Dinah. “Eye for eye, tooth for tooth” can also be viewed as a limit or celing of retribution to be taken. I believe the origianl question is talking about gradation, in terms of what seems to be a lack (or inappropriate) justice for the woman raped. Judges records a violent rape (Judges 19). In Judges 20, we see an over-reaction, that just about wipes out the tribe of Benjamin. What we see in Deuteronomy is also a means of limiting the retribution a family may take. The Old Testament provides more than an account of our coming Saviour, it also records the laws and principles to administer justice in a community or nation. The principles of justice for application in a community are still just as applicable today (but won’t heal the human heart). Think of Iraq, Afghanistan today. The books of Moses were written for just such a community (in anarchy), to establish justice and a community….which is what we find recorded in Joshua, Judges, and the books of history in the Old Testament. The Old Testament also records how Israel emerged from a community of anarchy into what is arguably the strongest/longest most vibrant culture recorded in history…by following the priniciples of justice for a community that arose out of anarchy (and some can arguably say still exists amidst anarchy)… but again, the laws of justice still do not heal the human heart…hence why we still need a Saviour today…
    9 hrs · Like
  • Sarah Van Baale I would be very interested in knowing what the word “seizes ” is in Hebrew and what that word actually means in its full context. Along with that, what I think Deuteronomy 22:28-29 is emphasizing is principle of two becoming one flesh. It isn’t enough to have passion and be “married for a moment” but rather to indulge in passion within one committed marriage for “all of his days.” Since the man is the offender in the situation, this sends a clear message to men that having sex with a women comes a lifetime of responsibility. I don’t see this as a message to women that should you be raped you now have to fall under the authority of this horrible man. I’m not sure this is taught anywhere in the Bible, which is why I’d really want to get down to the word seizes. I could be wrong, I’m just guessing. I’m glad you got this question and not me!
    4 hrs · Like
  • Sarah Van Baale One other thing that I guess I would research is what does the Bible mean by rape? I’m not sure it aligns with society’s definition of unconsensual sex. Could a husband be accused of raping his wife in the Bible? I don’t think so, but yet I know one woman who was most definitely abused by her husband in this way. This would take a lot more studying, but perhaps any time a man slept with a woman to whom he was not married, it was considered rape. I suspect there is a disconnect between a biblical definition of rape and society’s current definition.

Team GotQuestions Blog

a Blog for Sharing Stories, Tips & Encouragement